The Virgin Birth Classic
Matthew's Testimony : Part 3

Matthew's Testimony : Part 2

...continued from Matthew's Testimony : Part 1

Point Number 2: The child, not the conception, was of the Holy Spirit

"she was found with child of the Holy Spirit" (Chapter 1:18)
"that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit" (Chapter 1:20)

If one discards pre-conceived opinions and applies the rules governing grammar, it is quite obvious that the 'Holy Spirit' does not refer to the manner of conception but to 'that which is conceived in her.'

The two Greek words used to denote the Holy Spirit are 'hagios' and 'pneuma', words which closely approximate the Hebrew term 'ruah ha-kodesh' or 'holy breath'. The 'ruah hakodesh' was used to denote a divine power which could fill men, as for instance the prophets, and was so used in reference to Jesus.

One need only to consult Luke to appreciate just how ludricous it is to use these verses from Matthew to justify a 'virgin birth'. Luke records that John the Baptist was 'filled with the Holy Spirit even from his mother's womb.' (Luke 1:15). He also records that a few months before John was born, his mother Elizabeth was 'filled with the Holy Spirit.' (Luke 1:41)

We learn from the Old Testament that the word of YHWH came to the prophet Jeremaiah saying:

"Before I (YHWH) formed thee in the belly, I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations." (KJV Jeremiah 1:5).

Compare this passage with the passage in Matthew. Was Jeremiah born of a virgin also? After all, YHWH is named as the agent of his birth. And what about John the Baptist? And even his mother? It's all...or none.

For more insights into the working of the Spirit see Galatians 1:15, Zecheriah 4:6 and John 14:26.

For those who may have trouble grasping the significance of the above, let me state more plainly:

A consistent theme of the Old Testament is that the Spirit of God is the agent of EVERY human birth. To use this theme in a 'particular' or 'exclusive' way ONLY where it refers to Jesus is to wrest the words of gospel writers who were just availing themselves of commonly understood terminology.

Matthew 1:20: In essence, the angel of the Lord just told Joseph not to would all be taken care of ...everything that had happened was the will of the Almighty.

There was a very compelling reason, known to both Mary and Joseph, why Joseph was not to be the father of the child, but more of that later...



Vynette, you are getting wackier and wackier. Have you ever considered auditioning for Last Comic Standing?

How about Ps 139:13-16. Did the Holy Spirit conceive us all? There's a big difference between recognizing God's omnipotence over human development, and saying that the Holy Spirit fathered a child, and the Bible is transparently clear about it, despite how you may attempt to muddle the issue.

If you want to get into an amateur-Greek-fight, let's get it on! Mat 1:20 says "That which is gennao in her is of the Holy Ghost". Gennao is the same word used dozens of times already in the Mat 1 Geneaology as 'begat'.

Fetus-John and Elizabeth are described with a totally different phrase: "filled (pletho) with the Holy Ghost", not 'of' the Holy Ghost.

BTW, what ever happened to my first comment on 'Virgin Birth: Matthew and the Young Woman'? I posted it before Greeks and Gifts, but it never showed up.

Peter Kirk

Vynette, you cannot use Matthew 1:18 to argue that "the 'Holy Spirit' does not refer to the manner of conception but to 'that which is conceived in her.'" That is abundantly clear when you look at the Greek - for in this verse there is no mention of the child! A literal translation is "...she was found having in stomach from Holy Spirit". "Having in stomach" is a normal Greek way of saying "pregnant". So a better translation is "she was found to be pregnant through the Holy Spirit" (TNIV). In this verse, it is completely clear from the Greek that the Holy Spirit relates to the pregnancy and not to the child.


Vynette, again I must also lean to Matt 1:18 the child belongs to the holy spirit. Luke 1:35 tells us that the child came to exist because of the holy spirits overshadowing.

"A consistent theme of the Old Testament is that the Spirit of God is the agent of EVERY human birth." - Where is this consistent theme?

Your quote of Jeremiah says nothing of God's spirit being over him. To be filled with the holy spirit (John the Baptist, Elizabeth) is much different than "being with child belonging to the holy spirit". "Of" is possessive of the holy spirit. You can't deny that.

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